Pulmonary Emergencies Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which of the following is a discharge criterion for a COPD patient?
• In a stable patient with PE who has right heart strain or elevated biomarkers, what risk category are they and what is the initial therapy?
• In hypertensive emergency with pulmonary edema, which agent is particularly effective for rapid blood pressure control?
• Pleural effusion fluid with LDH ratio >0.6 and inflammatory/injury characteristics is characterized as which type?
• Which statement about simple pneumothorax is true?
• In assessing an asthma attack, which set of history items would be considered important?
• In suspected asthma, chest X-ray is typically used to evaluate for which condition?
• What patient position is recommended for suspected pulmonary edema?
• A CURB-65 score of 2 indicates what level of mortality and recommended setting?
• Abrupt dyspnea, tachycardia, pleuritic chest pain, hypoxia, hemoptysis, and lower-extremity pain are classic for which condition?
• In evaluating COPD/asthma, which test is typically performed only if infection is suspected?
• Magnesium sulfate helps in acute asthma exacerbations by what mechanism?
• Which inpatient CAP regimen combines a cephalosporin with doxycycline?
• An unstable patient with PE who has right heart strain or elevated biomarkers is classified as which risk category and what is the initial treatment?
• When a patient presents with hemoptysis, what is essential to identify?
• Which disease presents with fever, cough, dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, sputum, and rigors, with ill appearance and dullness to percussion?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between COPD and smoking?
• Which reperfusion therapy is recommended for a PE of moderate to high risk?
• Which adjunct therapy is used in pneumothorax management?
• DuoNeb is a combination of which two agents?
• HIV-associated pneumonia in the material is typically treated with which drug for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia?
• Which description is most consistent with the emphysema phenotype?
• The Anthonisen Classification is a clinical guideline used to identify acute exacerbations of which disease and determine their severity?
• Which option is a less invasive method for pneumothorax drainage?
• In asthma management, discharge with close follow-up and oral steroids is considered when positive expiratory pressure improves by what percent?
• When giving supplemental oxygen to a COPD patient, what should you watch for?
• What imaging modality is considered the gold standard for pleural effusion?
• To avoid re-expansion pulmonary edema, do not remove more than how much pleural fluid?
• A chest tube is commonly attached to what drainage system?
• Which of the following is a cardiac biomarker that may be elevated in PE?
• Which population is commonly affected by primary spontaneous pneumothorax?
• Tube thoracostomy is typically placed at which location?
• If aspiration pneumonia is acquired in a hospital, what additional coverage is often considered?
• Among the outpatient CAP options, which choice represents a macrolide antibiotic?
• Which statement best describes a simple pneumothorax?
• What term describes rapid breathing commonly seen with dyspnea?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of Virchow's triad?
• Which medication acts as a vasodilator used in the treatment of pulmonary edema?
• Asthmatics may need longer courses of IV steroids if admitted. Is this statement true or false?
• Which of the following is listed as an extrapulmonary cause of hemoptysis?
• Which medication is used as a bridge to an IV nitroglycerin infusion in the management of pulmonary edema?
• Inpatient treatment for community-acquired pneumonia includes which regimen?
• Which test is invasive but highly accurate for diagnosing PE?
• In emergent pneumothorax management, which intervention provides immediate decompression?
• Which imaging study is used to confirm pneumothorax by showing evidence of lung collapse?
• Which mask is best for precise oxygen delivery in COPD patients?
• The landmark for needle decompression in a rapidly decompensating pneumothorax is which location?
• The Anthonisen Classification divides COPD exacerbations into how many types?
• What SpO2 target range is recommended for a COPD patient to prevent CO2 narcosis?
• NOT a feature typically associated with pulmonary edema?
• Which of the following is an ICU criterion for asthmatics?
• Which condition is included in the chest pain differential diagnosis for acute dyspnea?
• Advanced COPD is associated with _______ sided heart failure
• Which finding on exam is considered a red flag sign for an asthma exacerbation?
• Which EKG pattern is characteristic of PE and indicates right heart strain?
• Among initial imaging studies for suspected PE, which test is commonly performed but not definitive?
• Which statement is true about the management of pneumothorax according to the material?
• For healthcare-associated pneumonia, which intravenous regimen is listed?
• Antibiotics are indicated in COPD exacerbations when there is increased sputum purulence. Which option best reflects this criterion?
• What is the primary purpose of obtaining a chest X-ray in COPD or asthma?
• Which testing is included in pneumonia diagnostics?
• True or False: COPD commonly presents with sputum production and wheezing.
• Which option correctly states how D-Dimer levels relate to age?
• CTA positive indicates what?
• Which of the following is a must-not-miss differential diagnosis for acute dyspnea?
• Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is best described as orthopnea that awakens you from sleep and requires what posture to relieve breathlessness?
• What would the ABG/VBG typically show in COPD patients at baseline?
• Which type of pneumothorax occurs in patients with COPD, pneumonia, cystic fibrosis or asthma?
• Aspiration pneumonia is treated with which antibiotics?
• Which term describes an exacerbation of a known respiratory disease?
• On ABG, a low pH in a COPD patient indicates what?
• Which statement differentiates orthopnea from trepopnea?
• Asthma triggers can include URI, exercise, and inhaled allergens. Which option best captures this?
• Which feature is characteristic of the emphysema phenotype of COPD?
• Which class of drugs is indicated for both asthma and COPD exacerbations?
• What is the most common EKG finding associated with pulmonary embolism?
• Transudative pleural effusion is most commonly due to which mechanism?
• Which finding supports an intermediate-risk pulmonary embolism diagnosis in a normotensive patient?
• Which question is most important to ask about a history of COPD in the ER?
• What is an alternative reperfusion option that may be used in PE?
• Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is best described as
• In asthma, secretions are often described as thick. True or False?
• In the management of refractory, severely agitated patients during respiratory emergencies, which agent is described as useful?
• What radiographic finding is commonly seen in COPD?
• Which type of pneumothorax occurs in young, tall men 20-40 who smoke without clinically significant apparent lung disease?
• Which sign is most characteristic of tension pneumothorax?
• True or False: COPD has sputum production and wheezing.
• The S1Q3T3 pattern on an EKG in the setting of pulmonary embolism indicates which finding?
• Which agent is effective for rapid blood pressure control in a hypertensive emergency presenting with pulmonary edema?
• What does the pneumonia severity index predict in CAP?
• Which treatment is not considered first-line in acute COPD/asthma exacerbations according to the material?
• Which of the following is a presentation of COPD in chronic bronchitis?
• What best describes dyspnea?
• Besides upright PA and lateral chest X-ray, which imaging option may be used for evaluating pleural effusion?
• Hampton's hump on chest radiograph represents what?
• What radiographic finding is commonly seen in COPD?
• Which disease is characterized by shortness of breath, cough, chest tightness, and wheezing, often worse at night and triggered by URI, exercise, and inhaled allergens?
• Which statement about IV fluids in pulmonary edema management is correct?
• When should BiPAP be considered in pulmonary edema?
• A CURB-65 score greater than 3 indicates what?
• Which condition is included in the differential diagnosis for hemoptysis?
• Which of the following is a classic physical exam sign of dyspnea?
• Hampton's hump on imaging represents which pathology?
• For inpatient CAP, which intravenous therapy option is listed?
• On CT angiography, a filling defect in the pulmonary artery indicates which diagnosis?
• True or False: There are no secretions in asthma.
• Antibiotics in asthma exacerbations are indicated when there is concern for what?
• In evaluating suspected PE, a positive D-Dimer most commonly leads to which next test?
• If the Wells score for PE is 2-4, what is the next step?
• Pulmonary edema in patients with severe ESRD is primarily treated with which intervention?
• Which of the following is not part of the CURB-65 criteria?
• Which outpatient CAP option is listed that is a tetracycline?
• Ventilatory/respiratory failure occurs when
• Which anticholinergic is indicated for asthma and COPD and is often combined with a beta-adrenergic agonist?
• If positive expiratory pressure is less than what percent with persistent severe symptoms, the patient requires oxygen and admission?
• Which finding indicates increased work of breathing in a patient with dyspnea?
• Which physical exam finding is commonly associated with pulmonary edema?
• D-Dimer negative means?
• A pleural effusion is typically detectable on chest radiograph when the pleural fluid volume reaches approximately how many milliliters?
• Which disease is described as a chronic condition with significant fixed airway obstruction that remains at baseline even when the illness is under control, typically linked to a long smoking history?
• Pulmonary edema treatment emphasizes ABCs. Which initial step is recommended?
• Which outpatient treatment option is listed for community-acquired pneumonia?
• What best distinguishes dyspnea from respiratory distress?
• In a patient who is decompensating quickly from a pneumothorax, what immediate intervention is recommended?
• Which anticoagulant therapy is recommended for PE in all patients?
• Which noninvasive ventilation option is explicitly listed alongside BiPAP or intubation in the oxygen delivery options?
• CTA negative means?
• Which of the following is a sign of high risk/massive PE?
• What systemic steroid regimen is described for moderateto-severe exacerbations not improved with bronchodilators in asthma and COPD?
• Which beta-adrenergic agonist is indicated for both asthma and COPD when given as 5 mg every 20-30 minutes for three doses?
• Where is needle decompression performed in a rapidly decompensating pneumothorax?
• In dyspnea, which sign on examination can indicate hypercapnia?
• Which of the following is a common cause of pulmonary edema?
• What is the typical chest X-ray finding for pleural effusion?
• Which imaging test is most commonly used to definitively diagnose PE in contemporary practice?
• Which disease is most likely associated with nocturnal symptoms and reversible airway obstruction?
• Which diuretic is commonly used to treat pulmonary edema?
• Which type of pneumonia would be considered in a pregnant patient?
• A stable patient with PE and no right heart strain or biomarker elevation is in which risk category and what is the initial therapy?
• In intermediate-risk PE, when is reperfusion therapy considered?
• Which combination of tests is commonly obtained when evaluating pneumonia?
• Which statement about pleural effusion management is true?
• Is asthma reversible?
• Which device functions as a drainage option other than a chest tube?
• Which population is more likely to have poorer functional status and confusion rather than typical cough and pleuritic chest pain?
• Which test is a nuclear medicine study used in PE evaluation?
• Which of the following is an admission criterion for COPD?
• Which statement about D-Dimer performance is correct?
• Which radiographic description is commonly described in pulmonary edema?
• What is the Westermark sign on imaging?
• What should be done if the patient is hypoxemic in pulmonary edema?
• Pleural effusion fluid with increased hydrostatic pressure and decreased albumin is classified as what type?
• What is the first step in determining treatment for pulmonary embolism?
• Why should noninvasive ventilation be started early in pulmonary edema?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for pulmonary embolism?
• What procedure is used for both diagnosing and treating a pleural effusion?
• Which of the following is a presentation of COPD in the emphysema phenotype?
• Which condition is described by chest pain (pleuritic or non-pleuritic), dyspnea, hypoxia, respiratory distress, and examination findings of decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion on the involved side?
• Hampton's hump on chest imaging is best described as which of the following?
• Definitive therapy for pulmonary edema in patients with severe renal failure is?
• Which population is 3x more likely to develop pneumococcal bacteremia?
• Diagnostic test to get for pneumothorax?
• Which condition is a must-not-miss differential diagnosis for hemoptysis?
• What is the name of the triad describing factors contributing to venous thromboembolism?
• Which option represents definitive drainage in a stable patient with pneumothorax?
• For low-risk stable PE, what is the recommended initial management?
• Aspiration pneumonitis is best described as what?
• What is considered the gold standard treatment for pneumothorax?
• What gauge needle is used for needle decompression in a rapidly decompensating pneumothorax?
• In the assessment pathway for suspected pulmonary embolism, if the PERC rule is positive, which test is typically performed next?
• Which description identifies tension pneumothorax?
• Which of the following is listed as a cause of hemoptysis?
• Which scenario supports the use of noninvasive ventilation (BiPAP) in pulmonary edema?
• A CURB-65 score of 0 or 1 indicates what level of mortality and preferred treatment setting?
• What therapy is used to facilitate air absorption in a pneumothorax?
• Which type of pneumothorax occurs during subclavian line placement, thoracentesis, following lung biopsy, or Barotrauma from positive pressure ventilation?
• Which option is described as the definitive treatment for pneumothorax in the material?
• Latent tuberculosis is treated with which drug?
• If the PERC rule is negative, what does this mean?